Point rake calculation !!

stxma

Well-Known Member
1 Oct 2008
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How do we calculate how many% rake each point has?
gkaniota.jpg
 
Answer: Point rake calculation !!

About 13,04%.
We reduce to 100
Let's go to example. The sum of the theoretical probabilities instead of giving us 100% gives us 115% (since there is a rake)
This will say what: It will say that if they play a total of 115 Euros proportionally in the 3 points, whatever happens, they will return 100 Euros. So if 100 Euros had been played in total, (which is why I say we reduce to 100) how much would they have returned?
So with a simple method of three you find 86,96 Euros, so the rake is about 100-86,96 = 13,04%.
Difficult;

 
Answer: Point rake calculation !!



Difficult;


Yes, it is difficult .... since I am not saying the 3 total points but each one SEPARATELY .......


How much does the ACE have ONLY .....................

How much does ONLY ..................... HA have?

How much does ONLY ..................... have TWO
 
Last edited:
Answer: Point rake calculation !!

Stxma there is no individual rake. What exactly are you looking for and want?
 
Answer: Point rake calculation !!

The ace does not have a rake by itself. Neither the X nor the 2. The whole SET has a rake.
To give it simpler: over 1,80 and under 1,80. The rake is 10%. That is, the Company, even if the 2 possibilities are bet equally, will make a profit of 10% on the bets. Isn't this the rake?
Now, after seeing what the definition of rake is, you understand that the question "what is the rake of over" is "invalid". Correctly;
Maybe you mean something else for sure. What;
If you consider that based on the data of the teams, the over has a probability of 60%, then the rake has practically "clipped" only the performance of the under. That is, the over at 1,80 rake still has some value.
But again with an aganotaristiko the set would pay 2,00.
Maybe I did not understand the question, so forgive me.
:)
 
Answer: Point rake calculation !!

I will answer a little simple and accordingly I will set an example again.

I have seen for example an opap match and a match eg 365

the corresponding stichiman-365



Now let's say opap-365

While they have a rake of about 13% and let's say 5% there are cases where some point

to have it in the same performance or the least different.

I will answer again
 
Answer: Point rake calculation !!

gkaniota 10.JPG

Here I have put opap-stoiximan same fight.

When I put both without a rake, why does opap give better odds?


I can not understand how they define 0% rake differently?
 
Answer: Point rake calculation !!

Because it gives higher favorites (without rake) but which are lower due to rake. When it comes to 13% rake this is the best way to approach a game.
 
Answer: Point rake calculation !!

Because it gives higher favorites (without rake) but which are lower due to rake. When it comes to 13% rake this is the best way to approach a game.


That is, if we say
2.05 * + 13,39418% = 2.324

it's correct?
 
Answer: Point rake calculation !!

What is the difference between the 2?

2.05 * + 13,39418% = 2.324

2,05 * 1,15 = 2,357

is it the same?
 
Answer: Point rake calculation !!

What is the difference between the 2?

2.05 * + 13,39418% = 2.324

2,05 * 1,15 = 2,357

is it the same?

If you multiply all 3 points with 13.39 you will not get 100%, something will be missing. That is, there will be a rake again.
 
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Answer: Point rake calculation !!

gka1.jpg

Here for example in relation to the man has less rake.
 
Answer: Point rake calculation !!

View attachment 21275

Here I have put opap-stoiximan same fight.

When I put both without a rake, why does opap give better odds?


I can not understand how they define 0% rake differently?

Keep in mind that different bets per company also play a role. We used to take advantage of this in OPAP and make a profit, the fact that it was slow to change the odds. Also, sometimes (I remember around March when I started writing here) OPAP took out the under / over of the B 'national team very inflated compared to my bets. Enter a tipster league to see what changes you have made.
 
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How do we calculate how many% rake each point has?
View attachment 21274
Hi!
I understand your question. Few people know that at each point of a betting set, a separate rake is applied, the price of which fluctuates inversely depending on the odds of the point. In the article I quote I explain in detail why and how this is done. I hope reading the article will help you understand.

 
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