cash out

stxma

Well-Known Member
1 Oct 2008
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Does anyone know if I want to Cash out a 0-0 result with an odds of for example 9,50 and a bet of 0,35 = 3,325. do I have a refund?

Somewhere I read that it can be calculated somewhat like this, since the yield is 9,50 * 0,35 = 3,325-the rake if it is 8% = 3,059.
Is that so or is the reasoning wrong?
 
If the match has not started (obviously since the odds are the same at 0-0) they usually refund the entire amount.
 
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If the match has not started (obviously since the odds are the same at 0-0) they usually refund the entire amount.
The question is basically if before or even after there is a possibility of cash out in the same odds that were played. If I played odds of 3,10, and then it has 3,10 again if I can make cash? ?
 
The question is basically if before or even after there is a possibility of cash out in the same odds that were played. If I played odds of 3,10, and then it has 3,10 again if I can make cash? ?
I do not know this my friend but I think it reaches the limits of OPAP. However, in the original example you gave, if the odds go up to 9,50 again, you will not get back the 3 euros which is a profit but a percentage of the 0,35 that you have bet. Maybe 0,30-0,29 minutes.
 
I do not know this my friend but I think it reaches the limits of OPAP. However, in the original example you gave, if the odds go up to 9,50 again, you will not get back the 3 euros which is a profit but a percentage of the 0,35 that you have bet. Maybe 0,30-0,29 minutes.
Not to be confused, let's just bet 10 € on X with odds of 3,30, at halftime it is still X draw, say that the odds are 3,30 even if I cash I will get 3,30 * 10 = 33 € minus the corresponding rake;
 
E no ... you will get € 10 minus the corresponding rake.
You say that I will only take part in the bet minus the rake.
Here I read somewhere he explains it differently he says I will take (bet * current odds)
With a simple example we will explain how Cash Out works.

Let's say we have bet € 100 on a team at odds of 2.00. During the match and while our team is leading 1-0, our betting offers € 145 to close our bet. This amount results from the current odds given to our team's victory (1.50) live, minus the Cash Out rake, which's supposedly set at 10% for our example.

That is: 1.50 (current odds) - 10% (rake * Cash Out) = 1.45 X 100 (betting) = € 145
 
You say that I will only take part in the bet minus the rake.
Here I read somewhere he explains it differently he says I will take (bet * current odds)
First of all, it is not the same scenario ...

You said that performance does not change in your own scenario. In the other scenario, the performance fell ...

And secondly, you do not win € 145 (45 net) when the odds from 2 go to 1,50.

You win 33 € without any rake. If it has a rake, it is reduced even more.
 
First of all, it is not the same scenario ...

You said that performance does not change in your own scenario. In the other scenario, the performance fell ...

And secondly, you do not win € 145 (45 net) when the odds from 2 go to 1,50.

You win 33 € without any rake. If it has a rake, it is reduced even more.
I did not say it does not change, I say when I want to cash out and the return is still the same.
Say that with the above example in (odds 2,00 on the ace) in live at 10 minutes it is still at 2,00
or at 1,95 the ace, logically will not be 1,95 * 100 = 195 minus rake;
 
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I did not say it does not change, I say when I want to cash out the return is still the same.
Say that with the above example in (odds 2,00 on the ace) in live at 10 minutes it is still at 2,00
or at 1,95 logic will not be 1,95 * 100 = 195 minus rake;
No, dude ...

It is not possible to have played € 100 and in the 10th minute without a card being moved they will pay you the game € 200.

Your money back will give you the best.
 
No, dude ...

It is not possible to have played € 100 and in the 10th minute without a card being moved they will pay you the game € 200.
That is, if the match is ambiguous and at 70 the ace is again 1,95 and I ask for cash out they will not give it to me;
 
That is, if the match is ambiguous and at 70 the ace is again 1,95 and I ask for cash out they will not give it to me;
Of course not .... and in 95 'if the ace is 1,95 you will get 100 € again.

Haven't you played betfair before?
 
Of course not .... and in 95 'if the ace is 1,95 you will get 100 € again.

Haven't you played betfair before?
no.

For clarification, I say that the match at 70, for example, is still a basic one and the ace is 1,95-2,00.
 
Gross I mean as an agency bet amount + profit
Here are the documents


Say that I found the double at 1,90 and on the live in about 15 minutes, this is the odds and I had bet € 100 on the double and ask for cash out at 1,88, that is, I will get 88 profit minus the rake, right?
 

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Here are the documents

Say that I found the double at 1,90 and on the live in about 15 minutes, this is the odds and I had bet € 100 on the double and ask for cash out
You will get € 100 back again ... Maybe a little less, about € 95 due to a rake.
 
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You will get € 100 back again ... Maybe a little less, about € 95 due to a rake.
I have lost somewhere. If I have in my account (only € 100)? And I bet them and cash out and I want to withdraw all the money I will get about 195.
 
I have lost somewhere. If I have in my account (only € 100)? And I bet them and cash out and I want to withdraw all the money I will get about 195.
Dude, am I saying something wrong? I do not know how to say it more simply ...

You will get € 95. You had € 100, you played € 100, they put € 95 on you, in your account after the cash out you will have € 95.
 

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